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Assuming the fundamentals behind this diet fad works, even though I know it doesnt. In theory, how would human chorionic gonadotropin affect a woman who has had a full hysterectomy differently than an avg healthy woman with uterus and ovaries intact?
I have no uterus and only one ovary. I never skipped a day, but then again I didn’t do long rounds. I think a lot of women here don’t skip those days. They will have to answer that, but I can always tell when ovulation is here, so two weeks later, I look for the crankiness a sure sign for me!
The difference between a woman with intact ovaries and a woman without ovaries (such as with a full hysterectomy), is that the woman without ovaries will be in a post-menopausal state. In a post-menopausal state, LH production is going to be high.
Thus, hypothetically, using HCG in a woman without ovaries is not going to work as well as with a woman who has intact ovaries. This is because HCG – which acts like LH – will have less of an effect in a woman without ovaries, whose LH is already going to be high.
On the other hand, HCG also weakly acts like thyroid stimulating hormone. This action would be expected to be the same without or without ovaries.
What is unclear, currently, is whether or not TRH (thyroid releasing hormone) is produced by the ovaries in significant amounts (TRH is produced by men’s testes in significant amounts). Hypothetically, then, a woman without ovaries, if TRH is produced by the ovaries, would have a loss of thyroid hormone signaling. Then HCG would not be able to raise thyroid hormone signaling as highly in women without ovaries compared to women with intact ovaries, since the women without ovaries would already be at a disadvantage in thyroid hormone production.
Again, this is all hypothetical and speculative.
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